DNB Microbiology And Immunology Solved Model Question Paper 2022

DNB Microbiology And Immunology Model Question Paper 2022

Question 1. Which disinfectant works by plasma membrane damage?

1. Alcohol
2. Quaternary ammonium compounds
3. Phenol
4. Halogen compounds

Answer. (3) (Phenol)

Phenolics act by denaturing proteins and disrupting cell membranes.

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Question 2. Immunoglobulin in peyer’s patch is:

1. IgM
2. IgG
3. IgA
4. IgD

Answer. (3) (IgA)

IgA is predominant immunoglobulin in peyer’s patch, and thereby mediates local or mucosal immunity.

Question 3. True about Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is:

1. High IgM levels
2. Low IgA levels
3. Wasp gene mutation
4. Defect in phagocytosis

Answer. (3) (Wasp gene mutation)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by lower IgM levels, normal IgG levels,paradoxically the levels of IgA and IgE are often elevated.

Question 4. Central component of complement system is:

1. C3a
2. C3b
3. C4
4. C5

Answer. (2) (C3b)

C3b is the central component of complement system.

Question 5. Which of the following acts as an opsonin?

1. C3a
2. C3b
3. C5a
4. LTB4

Answer. (2) (C3b)

C3b and C4b act as major opsonins that coat the immune complexes and particulate antigens.

Question 6. Cell-mediated immunity is by virtue of:

1. Helper T cells
2. Suppressor T cells
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. All above

Answer. (3) (cytotoxic T cell)

Cytotoxic T cell, NK cell and cells mediating ADCC are the mediators of CMI.

Question 7. A patient comes with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

1. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
2. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
3. Job’s syndrome
4. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

Answer. (1) (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome manifests as thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections.

Question 8. Prevalence of leprosy in India per 10,000 is:

1. >1
2. 0.88
3. 0.71
4. 0.67

Answer. (4) (0.67)

Prevalence of leprosy in India is 0.67 per 10,000 population, as on 31st March, 2018.

Question 9. Tuberculin positive means:

1. Immunodeficient patient
2. Resistance to tuberculin protein
3. Patient is infected with Mycobacterium
4. Patient is suffering from disease

Answer. (3) (Patient is infected with Mycobacterium)

Tuberculin test positive indicates that the patient is infected with MTB.

Question 10. The most common cause of pulmonary abscesses in cystic fibrosis is:

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Burkholderia cenocepacia
4. Nontuberculous mycobacteria

Answer. (1) (Pseudomonas aeruginosa)

The most common cause of pulmonary abscesses in cystic fibrosis patients is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 11. Which system is primarily affected by tetanus?

1. Hematological
2. Nervous
3. Respiratory
4. All

Answer. (2) (Nervous)

Question 12. Burkholderia cepacia is infrequently seen in:

1. Pools
2. Plants
3. Soil
4. Air

Answer. (3) (Soil)

B. Cepacia is a gram-negative bacterium found in soil and moist environments and causes various types of infections, including catheter-associated infections and respiratory tract infections, in hospitalized patients.

Question 13. Weil’s disease is caused by:

1. Leptospira
2. Plague
3. Yersinia
4. Rickettsial Fever

Answer. (1) (Leptospira)

Question 14. Characteristic of anaerobic bacteria is:

1. Foul-smelling discharge
2. Fail to grow in aerobic media
3. Gas in tissue
4. All of the above

Answer. (4) (All of the above)

Question 15. True about diphtheria are all except:

1. Bull neck appearance
2. Maculopapular rash
3. High carrier state
4. Causes pseudomembrane

Answer. (2) (Maculopapular rash)

Question 16. Causative agent of Yaws is:

1. Treponema pertenue
2. Treponema carateum
3. Treponema pallidum
4. Treponema endemicum

Answer. (1) (T. pertenue)

Question 17. Chlamydia escape killing by:

1. Inhibit phagolysosome fusion
2. Causes cell membrane perforation
3. Produces factors that Camouflage it
4. Molecular mimicry

Answer. (1) (Inhibit phagolysome fusion)

Chlamydiae survive inside the cells by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion by inserting chlamydial antigens on to the phagosomal membrane.

Question 18. Which is not caused by Aedes aegypti?

1. Yellow fever
2. Dengue
3. Japanese encephalitis
4. Filaria

Answer. (3) (Japanese encephalitis)

Japanese encephalitis transmitted by Culex tritaeniorhynchus.

Question 19. Japanese encephalitis is caused by:

1. Culex
2. Aedes
3. Mansonia
4. Anopheles

Answer. (1) (Culex)

Japanese encephalitis transmitted by Culex.

Question 20. Smallpox vaccine was invented by:

1. Louis Pasture
2. Edward Jenner
3. Paul Eugene
4. John Snow

Answer. (2) (Edward Jenner)

Question 21. Eight site rabies vaccine schedule is:

1. 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
2. 8-0-0-4-1-1
3. 8-0-4-1-1-1
4. 8-0-4-0-1-1

Answer. (d) (8-0-4-0-1-1)

The eight-site rabies vaccine is given by intradermal method (8-0-4-0-1-1) for use with HDC and PCECV anti-Rabies vaccines.

The 8 sites regimen should be particularly considered in emergency situations when Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG) is not available.

Question 22. Which of the following hepatitis has worst prognosis?

1. HBV HDV co-infection
2. HDV superinfection on HBV
3. HBV alone
4. HDV alone

Answer. (2) (HDV superinfection on HBV)

Super-infection of HDV over HBV has a worse prognosis than coinfection of HDV with HBV.

Question 23. Herpes zoster in geniculate ganglion causes:

1. Bell’s palsy
2. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
3. Markelson-Rosenthal syndrome
4. Herpes zoster ophthalmic

Answer. (1) (Bell’s palsy)

Question 24. The marker used for determining efficacy of hepatitis B vaccination is:

1. HBsAg
2. IgM anti-HBcAg
3. IgG anti-HBcAg
4. Anti- HBsAg

Answer. (4) (Anti-HBsAg)

Anti-HBsAg of titer>10mIU/mL is considered as protective and provides marker of vaccination.

Question 25. Most prevalent subtype HIV in India is:

1. Subtype A
2. Subtype B
3. Subtype C
4. Subtype D

Answer. (3) (Subtype C)

Most prevalent subtype HIV in India as well as the in the world is HIV-1, subtype C.

Question 26. In asymptomatic HIV the prophylactic treatment of PCP starts at what CD 4 count?

1. <400
2. <350
3. <200
4. <100

Answer. (3) (<200)

Cotrimoxazole prophylaxis (for prevention of Pneumocystis pneumonia) is indicated:

• HIV-infected adults with CD4 count <200/cmm
• WHO clinical stage 3 or 4 irrespective of CD4 count.

Question 27. Most Common deep mycosis in India is:

1. Histoplasmosis
2. Blastomycosis
3. Coccidiomycosis
4. Cryptococcus

Answer. (1) (Histoplasmosis)

• Deep mycoses are not prevalent in India, however, among them Histoplasma is more common.
• Examples of deep mycoses—Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis and paracoccidioidomycosis

Question 28. True about mucormycosis is:

1. Nose is a common site
2. Diabetics is not a predisposing factor
3. Common in India
4. All of the above

Answer. (1) (Nose is a common site)

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis is the most common clinical presentation, followed by pulmonary, cutaneous, GIT, disseminated, and miscellaneous forms.

Question 29. Syringes and glassware are sterilized by:

1. Irradiation
2. Autoclave
3. Hot air oven
4. Glutaraldehyde

Answer. (3) (Hot air oven)

Question 30. Food poisoning occurs in 6–7 hours by all except:

1. Staphylococcus
2. E. coli
3. Clostridium botulinum
4. Bacillus cereus

Answer. (2) (E.coli )

Enterohaemorrhagic and Enterotoxigenic E.coli food poisoning occurs in more than 16 hours after ingestion of contaminated food source such as salads, cheese, raw meat, water etc.

Question 31. Cyclopropagative type of life cycle is seen in:

1. Cholera
2. Filaria
3. Plague
4. Malaria

Answer. (4) (Malaria)

Mode of transmission of various diseases by biological means occurs by three ways:

1. Propagative transmission: This occurs when the parasite undergoes multiplication within the body of biological vector but no cyclical change is observed. Eg. Plague bacilli in rat fleas.
2. Cyclo-propagative transmission: This occurs when parasite undergoes multiplication in the body of the vector and also undergoes cyclical change at same time. Eg. Malarial parasite in female Anopheles mosquito.
3. Cyclo-developmental transmission: When the parasite undergoes no multiplication in the body of vector but they undergo cyclical changes. Example: Filarial parasite (Wuchereria) in Culex mosquito.

Question 32. Which of the following does not a causes invasive diarrhea?

1. Salmonella
2. Aeromonas
3. Shigella
4. Bacillus cereus

Answer. (4) (Bacillus cereus)