Herpesviruses Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Herpes Simplex Virus

Question 1. In which of the following, viral load done by Real-Time PCR is of no role in investigative procedures?

1. A person with hepatitis B on tenofovir therapy
2. HSV causing temporal encephalitis
3. BK virus in patients of allograft renal transplant
4. CMV PCR in the blood of a patient of a liver transplant

Answer. (2) (HSV causing temporal encephalitis)

• Quantitative PCR testing provides information about HSV viral load in CSF, but the potential correlation of viral load with prognosis or other clinical features of HSV encephalitis disease remains uncertain
• In contrast, quantification (viral load monitoring by real-time PCR) has an important role in the prognosis of hepatitis B, HIV, CMV, BK virus, etc.

Read And Learn More: Micro Biology And Immunology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. A 30-year-old sexually active man presented with painful, grouped vesicular eruptions on a penile shaft for 4 days. On taking history it was revealed that similar lesions had occurred 4 times in the last 1 year. Organism (s) associated with such lesions is/are?

1. Treponema pallidum
2. HSV-2
3. Haemophilus ducreyi
4. Chlamydia trachomitis

Answer. (2) (HSV-2)

Painful, grouped vesicular eruptions on the penile shaft.

Question 3. A 25-year female came with multiple painful tiny vesicular ulcers over the vulva and vaginal walls. On examination, there are painful enlarged lymph nodes. The causative organism might be:

1. C.granulomatis
2. Chlamydia trachomatis
3. H.ducreyi
4. HSV-2

Answer. (4) (HSV-2)

Painful multiple tiny vesicular ulcers on genitalia- suggestive of Herpes simplex virus-2 infection.

Question 4. A patient has painful tiny vesicular ulcers on lips. Tzank smear was made from the scrapping of the lesion. Identify the pathogen.

1. Varicella zoster
2. Herpes simplex
3. Parvovirus
4. HPV
5. Varicella zoster virus

Answer. (2) (Herpes simplex)

• Clue for diagnosis- Painful tiny vesicular ulcers on lips, Tzank from the scrapping of the lesion shows multinucleated giant cells.

Question 5. Shingles are caused by:

1. VZV
2. HSV
3. HPV
4. CMV

Answer. (1) (VZV)

Zoster usually occurs due to reactivation of latent VZV in old age (>60 years of age), in immunocompromised individuals, or occasionally in healthy adults.

Question 6. Herpes zoster resides in:

1. Regional lymph node
2. Skin
3. Posterior root ganglia
4. Blood

Answer. (3) (Posterior root ganglia)

The most common nerve involved is an ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. The head, neck, and trunk are the most common affected sites.

Question 7. Herpes zoster oticus is caused by

1. Herpesvirus type 1
2. Herpesvirus type 2
3. Herpesvirus type 3
4. Herpesvirus type 4

Answer. (3) (Herpesvirus type 3)

• Herpes zoster oticus is caused by varicella-zoster virus, which is human herpesvirus-3

Question 8. Shingles is caused by: (NEET 2018 Pattern)

1. Human Herpesvirus -1
2. Human Herpesvirus -2
3. Human Herpesvirus –3
4. Human Herpesvirus -4

Answer. (3) (Human Herpesvirus –3)

Shingles or zoster is caused by Varicella zoster or Human Herpesvirus –3

Question 9. Newborn is presented with chorioretinitis, hypoplasia of limbs, and scaring of hands.

1. The most probable diagnosis is:
2. Herpes
3. Rubella
4. CMV
5. Fetal varicella syndrome

Answer. (4) (Fetal varicella syndrome)

Hypoplasia of limbs and scaring of hands- Suggestive of Fetal varicella syndrome.

Question 10. A patient presented with a vesicle on the skin. Microscopy of the Tzank smear showed giant cells. The causative agent is:

1. Vaccinia virus
2. Varicella zoster
3. Mycobacterium
4. Molluscum contagiosum

Answer. (2) (Varicella zoster)

Giemsa staining of the scrapings from the Varicella-zoster ulcer base (Tzanck smear) reveals cytopathological changes similar to that of HSV infection, such as the formation of multinucleated giant cells.

Question 11. Indication for varicella immunoglobulin is:

1. A pregnant woman nonimmune to Varicella Zoster, exposed to a child with chickenpox 12 days ago
2. A pregnant woman nonimmune to Varicella Zoster, exposed to her mother with shingles 2 days ago
3. A pregnant woman with no history of chickenpox develops shingles
4. A Pregnant woman previously treated with varicella immunoglobulin 10 days ago, but re-exposed to a case of chickenpox

Answer. (2) (A pregnant woman …)

• Recommendations for VZIG Administration
• The following should receive VZIG as soon as possible but not >96 h after exposure:
• In susceptible pregnant women exposed to a person with chickenpox or zoster
• Immunocompromised susceptible children exposed to a person with chickenpox or zoster
• Newborn (>28 weeks) whose mother had onset of chickenpox within -5 to +2 of delivery (VZIG not indicated if the mother has zoster)
• Hospitalized premature infant (<28 weeks/<1000 gm weight), regardless of maternal h/o exposure
• Patients receiving high-dose VZIG are likely to be protected and probably do not require VZIG on the next exposure occurring within 3 weeks … CDC,2013
• Pregnant women developing chickenpox or zoster- should be treated with acyclovir or valacyclovir. VZIG is not recommended here.

Question 12. Shingles are seen in:

1. IMN
2. Herpes zoster
3. Chickenpox
4. Smallpox

Answer. (2) (Herpes zoster)

Varicella zoster can cause chickenpox in primary exposure and zoster or shingles on reactivation of the primary lesion.

Question 13. Congenital varicella infection causes all except:

1. Microcephaly
2. Limb hypoplasia
3. Cortical atrophy
4. Cataract

Answer. (4) (Cataract)

• Fetal Varicella syndrome is characterized by
• Cicatrization skin lesion, Chorioretinitis, CNS defects, and Limb hypoplasia.

Question 14. A baby is delivered with scarring of the skin and deformed limbs. Which of the following intrauterine infections can be held responsible?

1. CMV
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Varicella
4. Rubella

Answer. (3) (Varicella)

Question 15. A mother delivers a baby three days after developing chickenpox. Which of the following is true?

1. No risk to both mother and baby
2. Baby has a risk of congenital Varicella infection
3. Give antiviral treatment to the mother
4. Give no treatment to the mother and give antiviral treatment to the baby

Answer. (2) (Baby has a risk of congenital…)

• Infection of Varicella during pregnancy:
• If a mother gets chickenpox > 5 days before delivery: Then a baby is mostly asymptomatic due to maternal antibody
• If a mother gets chickenpox within 5 days of delivery: The mother would not have produced protective antibodies, hence: disseminated infection in the baby occurs with a high risk of pneumonia and encephalitis.
• In such cases, treatment with Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) is indicated within 96 hr.

Question 16. Treatment of varicella in an immunocompetent host is:

1. Acyclovir
2. Acyclovir and vaccination
3. Prevention of complications
4. Immunoglobulin

Answer. (3) (Prevention)

• Medical management of chickenpox in the immunologically normal host is directed toward the prevention of avoidable complications.
• Good hygiene includes daily bathing and soaps. Secondary bacterial infection of the skin can be avoided by meticulous skin care, particularly with close cropping of fingernails.
• Pruritus can be decreased with topical dressings or the administration of antipruritic drugs. Tepid water baths and wet compresses are better for the relief of itching.

Question 17. Varicella zoster remains latent in:

1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Trigeminal ganglion
4. Plasma cells

Answer. (3) (Trigeminal ganglion)

• Following an attack of chickenpox, Varicella zoster virus remains latent in the sensory ganglion of the trigeminal nerve
• Reactivation is triggered by some precipitating factors
• Immunocompromised state: HIV
• Old age
• Lymphoreticular malignancy
• Reactivation of this virus causes Herpes zoster/Shingles

Question 18. Which of the viral diseases is associated with reactivation?

1. Pleurodynia
2. Shingles
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. Viral arthritis

Answer. (2) (Shingles)

Varicella zoster can undergo reactivation to cause shingles or zoster.

Question 19. A patient is suffering from a painful vesicular eruption at the T-4 dermatome. The cause is:

1. EBV infection
2. Herpes zoster
3. CMV infection
4. Herpes simplex

Answer. (2) (Herpes zoster)

• Herpes zoster (shingles) is a sporadic, incapacitating disease of adults or immunocompromised individuals that is characterized by painful vesicular eruption limited in distribution to the skin innervated by a single sensory ganglion (e.g. T-4 dermatome).
• Zoster is the response of the partially immune host to reactivation of varicella virus present in latent form in neurons in sensory ganglia.

Question 20. A 7-day-old neonate with microcephaly and periventricular calcification was suspected to have CMV. Which is the best sample that should be collected for DNA PCR?

1. Liver biopsy
2. CSF
3. Blood
4. Urine

Answer. (4) (Urine)

1. The diagnosis of congenital CMV infections requires the recovery of replicating virus and/or viral nucleic acids within the 1st 3 weeks of life.
   Sources of virus and viral nucleic acids include urine, saliva, and blood methods of detection include routine virus culture combined with immunofluorescence and polymerase chain reaction.
2. Urine is an ideal specimen for the isolation of CMV
3. CMV can be isolated from throat washings and urine; by using human fibroblast cell lines
4. As urine is the first option, therefore it is a more reliable specimen than blood for congenital diagnosis.

Question 21. Most common infection after transplantation:

1. HSV
2. CMV
3. HPV
4. Toxoplasma

Answer. (2) (CMV)

Question 22. Which viral infection is most likely to be transmitted by organ transplantation?

1. CMV
2. EBV
3. VZV
4. HHV-8

Answer. (1) (CMV)

CMV is most likely to be transmitted by organ (e.g. kidney) transplantation.

Question 23. Owl’s eye appearance inclusions are seen in:

1. Herpes simplex virus infections
2. Cytomegalovirus infections
3. Epstein-Barr virus infection
4. Adenovirus infection

Answer. (2) (CMV infections)

Owl’s eye appearance inclusions are seen in cells infected with CMV.

Question 24. CMV infection immediate diagnosis by:

1. Direct DNA estimation
2. Antigen detection
3. Isolation of the virus
4. ELISA for serum antibody

Answer. (1) (Direct DNA estimation)

• The most sensitive way to detect CMV in blood or other fluids may be by amplifying CMV DNA by PCR.
• PCR detection of CMV DNA in blood may predict the risk for disease progression, particularly in immunocompromised hosts
• PCR detection of CMV DNA in cerebrospinal fluid is useful in the diagnosis of CMV encephalitis or polyradiculopathy.
• Detection of CMV antigens (pp65) in peripheral-blood leukocytes or of CMV DNA in blood or tissues may hasten diagnosis. Such assays may yield a positive result several days earlier than culture methods.

Question 25. A 40-year-old man underwent kidney transplantation. Two months after transplantation, he developed a fever and features suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonitis. Which of the following is most likely an etiologic agent?

1. Herpes simplex virus
2. Cytomegalovirus
3. Epstein-Barr virus
4. Varicella Zoster virus

Answer. (2) (CMV)

• Persons at greatest risk for cytomegalovirus disease are
• Those receiving organ transplants (Kidney or solid organs),
• Those with malignant tumors who are receiving chemotherapy, and
• Those with AIDS.
• Viral excretion is increased and prolonged, and the infection is more apt to become disseminated.
• Diffuse Interstitial Pneumonia is the most common complication.

Question 26. A person with a renal transplant developed an infection of a graft within 2 months. The most probable cause of infection is:

1. Polyoma BK virus
2. CMV
3. Hepatitis C
4. Herpes simples virus

Answer. (2) (CMV)

Cytomegalovirus is the most common cause of infection following renal transplantation. It usually occurs after 1 month of transplantation and presents as bilateral interstitial pneumonia.

Question 27. A neonate has hepatosplenomegaly. His urine was stained with Giemsa stain which revealed owl’s eye appearance inclusions. Which will be the most probable cause?

1. CMV
2. HIV
3. Rubella
4. Measles

Answer. (1) (CMV)

Neonate with hepatosplenomegaly, Giemsa stain of urine reveals owl’s eye appearance inclusions…..is suggestive of neonatal CMV infection.

Question 28. Which of the following is a receptor for:

1. CR1
2. CR2
3. CR3
4. CR4

Answer. (2) (CR2)

The receptor for EBV is CD 21 or CR2.

Question 29. EBV receptors are:

1. CD 21
2. CD 9
3. CD 10
4. CD8

Answer. (1) (CD 21)

CD21 or CR2 are the receptors for EBV present in B cells and pharyngeal epithelial cells.

Question 30. Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes is seen in infection with:

1. HSV
2. HBV
3. EBV
4. RSV

Answer. (3) (EBV)

Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes is seen in infection with EBV

Question 31. How Epstein-Barr Virus cause autoimmunity?

1. Molecular mimicry
2. Exposure to sequestered antigens
3. Antigenic cross-reactivity
4. Polyclonal B-cell activation

Answer. (4) (Polyclonal)

• Many viruses and bacteria can induce nonspecific polyclonal B-cell activation.
• Gram-negative bacteria, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) are all known to be such polyclonal activators, inducing the proliferation of numerous clones of B-cells that express IgM in the absence of TH cells.
• If B cells reactive to self-antigens are activated by this mechanism, auto-antibodies can appear.
• For instance, during infectious mononucleosis, which is caused by EBV, a variety of auto-antibodies are produced, including autoantibodies reactive to T- and B-cells, rheumatoid factors, and antinuclear antibodies.

Question 32. Paul-Bunnel test is done for:

1. HBV
2. EBV
3. CMV
4. HIV

Answer. (2) (EBV)

• Paul-Bunnel test is a heterophile agglutination test done for infectious mononucleosis (caused by Epstein-Barr virus).
• Sheep RBC antigen is used to detect EBV antibodies.

Question 33. Oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with:

1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Human immunodeficiency virus
3. EBV
4. HPV

Answer. (3) (EBV)

Hairy cell leukoplakia is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.

Question 34. EBV causes all except:

1. Kaposi sarcoma
2. Infectious monocytosis
3. Burkitt’s lymphoma
4. Duncan’s disease

Answer. (1) (Kaposis sarcoma)

HHV8 is called Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus.

Question 35. All of the following are associated with HHV-8 except?

1. Kaposi sarcoma
2. Primary effusion lymphoma
3. Castleman disease
4. T-cell leukemia

Answer. (4) (T-cell leukemia)

• Human herpesvirus-8 is associated with Kaposi sarcoma, primary effusion lymphoma, and Castleman disease
• T-cell leukemia is caused by HTLV-1 (human T-cell leukemia-lymphoma virus)

Question 36. Kaposi sarcoma is related to which virus?

1. HPV-16
2. HHV-8
3. EBV
4. CMV

Answer. (2) (HHV-8)

Human Herpesvirus-8 has been identified from the tissue of patients with Kaposi sarcoma and is often called Kaposi sarcoma-associated virus commonly occurs in HIV-infected people, higher in men who have sex with men.

Question 37. The woman presented with dome-shaped warty lesions with a dimple at center on the forehead for 2 months, similar lesions were noticed in her daughter (image given) causative agent?

1. Poxvirus (Molluscum contagiosum)
2. Human Herpesvirus 6
3. Papilloma virus
4. Coxsackie virus

Answer. (1) [Poxvirus (Molluscum contagiosum)]

Dome-shaped warty lesions with a dimple at the center are suggestive of Molluscum contagiosum.

Question 38. A 28-year-old has had asymptomatic dome-shaped small lesions on the forehead for the past 2 months. She lives with her 2-year-old daughter, who also has similar lesions. What is the causative agent of the lesions?

1. HSV
2. Poxvirus
3. HPV
4. VZV

Answer. (2) (Poxvirus)

• Molluscum contagiosum lesions are flesh-colored, dome-shaped, and pearly in appearance.
• They are often 1–5 mm in diameter, with a dimpled center.
• Molluscum lesions are most commonly found on the face, arms, legs, torso, and armpits in children.
• Molluscum contagiosum is extremely contagious, transmitted by direct or indirect contact
• Other viruses in the options (HSV, HPV, or VZV) do not produce dome-shaped lesions and, therefore can be ruled out.

Question 39. Which is not an oncogenic virus?

1. Molluscum contagiosum
2. HPV
3. HBV
4. EBV

Answer. (1) (Molluscum contagiosum)

Question 40. Bollinger bodies are seen in:

1. Chickenpox
2. Cowpox
3. Fowl pox
4. Smallpox

Answer. (3) (Fowlpox)

Question 41. Which pox virus does not grow in egg, or animal cells?

1. Cowpox
2. Vaccinia
3. Variola
4. Molluscum

Answer. (4) (Molluscum)

Molluscum contagiosum virus does not grow in animal, egg, or tissue culture.

Question 42. Smallpox eradication was successful due to all except:

1. Subclinical cases did not transmit the disease
2. Highly effective vaccine
3. Infection provides lifelong immunity
4. Cross-infection occurs from animal pox viruses

Answer. (4) (Cross infection occurs from animal pox viruses)

• Smallpox eradication was successful due to:
• Subclinical cases did not transmit the disease
• Highly effective vaccine
• Once infected – leads to lifelong immunity

Question 43. The following is/are true about Adenovirus:

1. ssDNA virus
2. Icosahedral
3. Conjunctivitis is caused by type 17 D
4. Hemorrhagic cystitis is due to type 11,21
5. Diarrheagenic is due to type 40

Answer. (2, 4, 5) (Icosahedral, Hemorrhagic cystitis is due to type 11,21, Diarrheagenic is due to type 40)

• Adenovirus is a dsDNA virus with icosahedral symmetry.
• Infections caused by adenovirus

Question 44. Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by:

1. Adenovirus
2. Parainfluenza
3. Coxsackie viruses
4. All of the above

Answer. (1) (Adenovirus)

• Pharyngoconjunctival fever: This syndrome consists of febrile pharyngitis and conjunctivitis seen in a civilian population.

Question 45. Space vehicle virus is:

1. Reovirus
2. Rhabdovirus
3. Retrovirus
4. Adenovirus

Answer. (4) (Adenovirus)

Adenovirus virion is Space vehicle shaped.

Question 46. Which of the following is not caused by Parvovirus:

1. Roseola infantum
2. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell patients
3. Nonimmune hydrops fetalis
4. Erythema infectious

Answer. (1) (Roseola infantum)

Roseola is a common childhood disease, caused by infection with human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6); whereas Aplastic anemia in sickle cell patients, nonimmune hydrops fetalis, and Erythema infectiosum are caused by Parvovirus.

Question 47. Causes of Non-immune hydrops fetalis:

• Parvovirus
• ABO incompatibility
• Rh-incompatibility
• All of the above

Answer. (1) (Parvovirus)

• Parvovirus can cause non-immune hydrops fetalis

Question 48. Does parvovirus infection cause all except?

• Erythema infectiosum
• Gianotti-Crosti syndrome
• Papulovesicular rashes involving hands and feet “gloves syndrome “
• Aplastic crisis

Answer. (2) (Gianotti-Crosti syndrome)

Gianotti-Crosti Syndrome is a rare skin disease affecting children presenting as blisters on the skin of the legs, buttocks, and arms, and the predisposing cause is usually the Hepatitis B virus infection.

Question 49. True about parvovirus B 19:

1. Has a special tropism for neutrophils
2. Has special tropism for erythroid progenitor cells
3. Does not spread by respiratory route
4. Affects humans and animals alike

Answer. (2) (Has special tropism for erythroid progenitor cells)

• Parvovirus B19 has a special tropism for erythroid progenitor cells present in the adult bone marrow and fetal liver as it binds to blood group P antigen as receptors present on the RBC surface.
• Parvovirus spreads by respiratory route; it is not an animal pathogen.

Question 50. Slapped cheek appearance with fever is seen in:

1. Rubella
2. Rubeola
3. Parvovirus B19
4. HSV-6

Answer. (3) (Parvovirus B19)

Question 51. Parvovirus infection is associated with:(PGI June 2008,

1. Hydrops fetalis
2. Aplastic anemia
3. Abortion
4. Sixth disease
5. Hemophagocytic syndrome
6. Human PapillomaViruses

Answer. (1, 2, 3, 5) (Hydrops fetalis, Aplastic anemia, Abortion, Hemophagocytic syndrome)

Roseola or the sixth disease is caused by infection with human herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6).

Question 52. Which of the following is true regarding HPV vaccine strains?/Current WHO recommendations for HPV vaccination are:

1. Monovalent vaccine 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 52, 56, 58 strains
2. Monovalent vaccine 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58 strains
3. 3 doses to girls if initiated prior to 15 years of age
4. 2 doses recommended (6 months gap) between 9–14 years

Answer. (4) (2 doses recommended (6 months gap) between 9–14 yrs)

• Nine valent vaccines (Gardasil 9, Merck): Includes seven common cancer-causing serotypes (16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58) and two noncancer-causing serotypes (6 and 11)
• It is given IM; either as 2 doses (6 months gap) between 9–14 yrs or 3 doses (0, 2, and 6 months) between 14–26 yrs age
• The immune response is better if given earlier (<14 yrs)
• Protection appears to be long-lasting.

Question 53. Genital warts are caused by: (NEET PG 2018 Pattern)

1. Herpes simples
2. Human papilloma
3. Cytomegalovirus
4. Varicella zoster

Answer. (2) (Human papilloma)

Anogenital warts (condyloma acuminatum) are caused by Human Papillomavirus types 6,11; they have low malignant potential. It is a sexually transmitted disease seen among adults

Question 54. Which subtype of human papillomavirus has the maximum chances of causing carcinoma cervix:

1. HPV 16 & 18
2. HPV 6 & 11
3. HPV 31 & 32
4. HPV 1 & 2

Answer. (1) (HPV 16, 18)

Most oncogenic serotypes of HPV are type 16 and 18.

Question 55. Laryngeal papillomas are caused by HPV:

1. 6,11
2. 16,18
3. 33,45
4. 4,27

Answer. (1) (6, 11)

Benign lesions such as recurrent laryngeal papillomas in children are associated with low-risk types 6 and 11

Question 56. Which of the following is true about HPV?

1. HPV is an RNA virus
2. Phase 3 clinical trials just passed is 9 valent vaccine
3. Type 16,18 is most commonly associated with cervical cancer
4. Have icosahedral symmetry
5. It can cause epidermodysplasia verruciformis

Answer. (2, 3, 4, 5) (Phase 3 clinical trials just passed is 9 valent vaccine, Type 16,18 most commonly associated with cervical cancer, Have icosahedral symmetry, It can cause epidermodysplasia verruciformis)

• The 9-valent HPV vaccine, which protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45,52, and 58, is safe and effective; and has cleared phase III trial….. Journal:
• HPV is a DNA virus, that has icosahedron symmetry
• High-risk serotypes 16,18 followed by 30,31,33 and 45 are commonly associated with cervical cancer.
• Epidermodysplasia verruciformis is due to HPV type 5,8,9,12,17.

Question 57. HPV causes Condyloma to accumulate. The most common cause?

1. HPV 1-4
2. HPV 6 &11
3. HPV 16 & 18
4. HPV 31 & 33

Answer. (2) (HPV 6 &11)

• Anogenital condylomas; laryngeal papillomas; dysplasias and intraepithelial neoplasias (mucosal sites are associated with HPV types 6, 11, 40, 42–44, 54, 61, 70, 72, 81. They have a low suspected oncogenic potential.

Question 58. Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes cancer of all except:

1. Bladder cancer
2. Oropharyngeal carcinoma
3. Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Cervical cancer
5. Testicular cancer

Answer. (1, 5) (Bladder cancer, Testicular cancer)

HPV-associated cancers include cervical and anal cancer, other vulvar and vaginal cancer, penile cancer, and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) involving the larynx and esophagus.

Question 59. Human Papilloma Virus is associated with all of the following cancers except:

1. Carcinoma base of the tongue
2. Tonsillar carcinoma
3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
4. Recurrent respiratory papilloma

Answer. (3) (Nasopharyngeal)

• Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is caused by Epstein-Barr virus.

Question 60. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by:

1. CMV
2. EBV
3. JC virus
4. RSV

Answer. (3) (JC virus)

• Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by – JC virus

Question 61. Condyloma acuminatum is caused by:

1. HSV
2. HPV
3. HIV
4. VZV

Answer. (2) (HPV)

Condyloma acuminatum is caused by–HPV

62. MC serotype of HPV causing CaCx:

1. HPV-6
2. HPV-11
3. HPV-16
4. HPV-33

Answer. (3) (HPV-16)

• MC serotype of HPV causing Coax- HPV 16 and 18.

Question63. Quadrivalent vaccine for HPV contains all except:

1. Type 7
2. Type11
3. Type16
4. Type18
5. Type26

Answer. (1, 5) (Type 7, Type 26)

• Quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil) for HPV contains serotypes 6, 11, 16 and 18
• Bivalent vaccine (Cervarix) for HPV contains serotypes 6 and 11

Question 64. True about bacteriophage is:

1. It is a bacteria infecting bacteria
2. Helps in gain of new toxigenic property
3. Transfers only chromosomal genes
4. Helps in the transformation of bacteria

Answer. (2) (Helps in gain of new toxigenic property)

• Bacteriophage coded Toxin makes the bacterium toxigenic.

About Other Options

• Bacteriophage is a virus that infects a bacterium
• Bacteriophage transfers genes from one bacterium to another known as Transduction
• Bacteriophages can transfer chromosomal as well as plasmid-coded genes. For example,plasmid-mediated beta-lactamase resistance

Question 65. All of the following statements are true about bacteriophage except:

1. It is a virus that infects bacteria
2. It helps in the transduction of bacteria
3. It imparts toxigencity to bacteria
4. It transfers only chromosomal gene

Answer. (4) (It transfers only chromosomal genes.)

• Bacteriophages act as carriers of genes from one bacterium to another: Transduction
• Bacteriophages can transfer chromosomal as well as plasmid-coded genes.
• Plasmid-mediated drug resistance in Staphylococcus is an example of a medically important property that is transmitted by transduction.

Question 66. Most of the Bacteriophage capsid exhibit which symmetry?

1. Helical
2. Icosahedral
3. Spherical
4. Filamentous

Answer. (2) (Icosahedral)