Neet Pattern Microbiology And Immunology Solved Model Question Paper 2022

Neet Pattern Microbiology And Immunology Model Question Paper 2023

Question 1. The following culture medium is used for the isolation of:

1. Listeria
2. Legionella
3. Escherichia
4. Campylobacter

Answer. (2) (Legionella)

Read And Learn More: Micro Biology And Immunology Model Question Papers With Answers

• This image shows growth of Legionella on Buffered charcoal, yeast extract (BCYE) agar.
• Legionellae are highly fastidious and grow on complex media, such as BCYE agar (pH 6.8–6.9) Plates are incubated at 37°C in 5% CO2 for 3–5 days.
• Colonies are round with an entire edge, glistening, convex, green or pink iridescent and have granular or speckled opalescence resembling ground glass.

Question 2. A 30-year-old veterinarian with a painless lesion on his arm that ulcerates and crusts with blackening around it. What is the most probable cause?

1. Brucella
2. Bacillus anthracis
3. Atypical mycobacteria
4. Leprosy

Answer. (2) (Bacillus anthracis)

A veterinarian with a painless lesion on his arm that ulcerates and crusts with blackening around it (eschar), suggests it is a case of cutaneous anthrax (malignant pustule).

Question 3. A child with meningitis, CSF gram is shown below. What is the causative agent?

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. H. influenzae
3. Klebsiella pneumonia
4. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer. (1) (Streptococcus pneumoniae)

Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive organism in pairs, this is suggestive of Pneumococcal meningitis.

Question 4. A 12-year-old boy develops new onset seizures. CT scan of brain is shown below. What is the probable causative agent?

1. Cysticerus cellulosae
2. Cysticerus bovis
3. Echinococcus granulosus
4. Hymenolepis nana

Answer. (1) (Cysticercus cellulosae)

CT scan of brain showing multiple ring enhancing cystic lesions with eccentric scolex;probable diagnosis is neurocysticercosis and causative agent is Taenia solium.

Question 5. Which of the following is a Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?

1. Single positive blood culture for Viridans streptococci
2. Single positive blood culture for Coxiella burnettii
3. Single positive blood culture for Streptococcus gallolyticus
4. Single positive blood culture for S. aureus

Answer. (2) (Single positive blood culture for Coxiella burnettii)

One of the Major Duke Criteria is positive blood culture, with Any one of the following:

• Typical infective endocarditis (IE) organism isolated from two separate sets of blood cultures (Viridans streptococci, Streptococcus gallolyticus, HACEK group, S. aureus or enterococci) or
• Persistently positive blood culture with agents other than typical IE organisms:
  • Blood culture sets drawn >12 h apart; or
  • All of 3 or a majority of ≥4 separate sets of blood culture, with first and last drawn at least 1 h apart
• Single positive blood culture for Coxiella burnetii or phase I IgG antibody titer of >1:800.

Question 6. DOC for following infection (as shown in image) in a HIV patient:

1. Metronidazole
2. Cotrimoxazole
3. Amoxicillin
4. Azithromycin

Answer. (2) (Cotrimoxazole)

Cyclosporiasis is treated with cotrimoxazole (trimethoprim 160 mg/sulfamethoxazole 800 mg twice daily for 7 days).

Question 7. A 30-year-old man, travels to China, returns and develops diarrhea, abdominal pain,mildly productive cough (rusty sputum). History of eating pickled crab. Which may be the probable cause for this clinical condition?

1. Paragonimus
2. Fasciola hepatic
3. Fasciolopsis buski
4. Opisthorchis

Answer. (1) (Paragonimus)

• 2nd intermediate host is aquatic plant for Fasciola and Fasciolopsis and crab for Opisthorchis, Clonorchis and Paragonimus.
• H/O travel to China, on returning patient developed intestinal manifestations like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and followed by mildly productive cough (rusty sputum). It is suggestive of pulmonary paragonimiasis.
• On infection, metacercariae of Paragonimus penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate into the abdominal cavity (abdominal tenderness, nausea and vomiting) and then migrate to lungs and develop to adult worms to cause frank hemoptysis (rusty sputum) with peripheral blood eosinophilia.

Question 8. Flask-shaped ulcers in intestine can be caused by?

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Giardia
3. Cryptosporidium
4. Cyclospora

Answer. (1) (Entamoeba histolytica)

• The classical ulcer with broad base with a narrow neck, called as flask shaped ulcer is seen with Amoebiasis.
• Amoebic ulcers most often develop in cecum, appendix, sigmoidorectal area and rarely throughout the colon.
• It may be superficial (confined to muscularis mucosa and heal without scar) or deep ulcer (beyond muscularis mucosa and heals with scar formation).

Question 9. Young man develops uni/bi-temporal lobe lesion. Autopsy shows Cowdry type A bodies.What is the probable cause?

1. HSV-1
2. HSV-2
3. HIV
4. Toxoplasmosis

Answer. (1) (HSV-1)

Cowdry type A inclusion can be seen in infection with yellow fever virus or with herpes simplex virus.

HSV is the most common cause for acute sporadic viral encephalitis, (10–20%) most frequently involving temporal lobe. HSV-1 is more common (95%) than HSV-2.

Question 10. Which vaccine to be avoided in pregnancy?

1. Rubella
2. HBV
3. IPV
4. Pneumococcal

Answer. (a) (Rubella)

Pregnancy is a contraindication unless the risk of infection exceeds the risk of harm to the fetus by giving the live vaccine.

The following vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy —

• Live-attenuated Influenza vaccine (LAIV), also known as the “nasal spray” flu vaccine
• Mumps-Measles-Rubella (MMR)
• Live-attenuated VZV-based vaccine
• Recombinant Zoster (Shingles) vaccine

Question 11. A 35-year-old sexually active woman, white discharge PV, pH- 5.4, presence of clue cells on wet mount of vaginal secretion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Trichomonas
2. Candida
3. Gardnerella

Answer. (3) (Gardnerella)

Amsel’s criteria used for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis includes:

1. Profuse thin viscous white vaginal discharge
2. pH > 4.5
3. Whiff test positive—Accentuation of distinct fishy odor (attributable to volatile amines such as trimethylamine) immediately after vaginal secretions are mixed with 10% solution of KOH.
4. Clue cells seen—They are vaginal epithelial cells coated with coccobacilli.
   • pH is not raised in vaginal candidiasis; and presence of clue cells rules out both Trichomonas and Candida infection.

Question 12. Special staining used for Cryptococcus:

1. ZN
2. Giemsa
3. Mucicarmine
4. Gomori methenamine silver

Answer. (3) (Mucicarmine)

Mucicarmine stain is used for staining the carminophilic cell wall of Cryptococcus and Rhinosporidium seeberi.

Question 13. Child with cataract and PDA. The causative organism belongs to which of the following family?

1. Reo
2. Toga
3. Picorna
4. Rabdo

Answer. (2) (Toga)

Congenital defects such as cataract and PDA are common presentation of congenital Rubella syndrome. It consists of Classical triad of Sensory neural deafness, Ocular defects (Salt-and-pepper retinopathy and cataract), Cardiac defect [Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), VSD, pulmonary artery stenosis].

CNS defects (microcephaly, mental retardation, motor delay and autism) may also be seen.

• Rubella belongs to Togaviridae family.

Question 14. Triad of congenital toxoplasmosis include all except:

1. Chorioretinitis
2. Hydrocephalus
3. Psychomotor disturbance
4. Intracranial calcifications

Answer. (3) (Psychomotor disturbance)

The classical triad of congenital toxoplasmosis comprises of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus,and intracranial calcifications; however, stillbirth, psychomotor disturbance and microcephaly may also be seen in some cases.

Question 15. A student gets needle stick injury in non-dominant hand while suturing. Which is not true?

1. Should inform authority
2. First aid has to be started as early as possible
3. Wash under water
4. Transmission of HIV is maximum by surgical needle incision

Answer. (4) (Transmission of HIV is maximum by surgical needle incision)

• The risk of transmission is highest for HBV (30%) followed by HCV (3%) and HIV (0.3%). For details refer chapter review of chapter 7.2.

Question 16. Organism causing hydrops fetalis-like infection?

1. CMV
2. EBV
3. Parvovirus
4. Papillomavirus

Answer. (3) (Parvovirus)

• Parvovirus B19 has a special tropism for erythroid progenitor cells present in adult bone marrow and fetal liver. It can cause non-immune Hydrops Fetalis in fetus which results in fatal anemia and fetal death. Transplacental transmission occurs in 30% of cases and maximum risk is in the second trimester.

Question 17. Which vaccine strain to be changed every year to adjust with seasonal variation?

1. Influenza
2. Japanese encephalitis
3. Rubella
4. Measles

Answer. (1) (Influenza)

• Due to antigenic variations that occur very frequently in influenza virus, based on WHO recommendations, influenza vaccines are prepared every year to adjust with seasonal variation.

Question 18. DOC for diphtheria carrier?

1. Erythromycin
2. Ampicillin
3. Rifampincin
4. Azithromycin

Answer. (1) (Erythromycin)

• DOC for diphtheria carrier are 7–10 days of oral erythromycin or one dose of IM benzathine penicillin G (1.2 million units for persons ≥6 years of age or 600,000 units for children <6 years of age) ……………..

Question 19. Who is Paradoxical carrier?

1. One who gets organism from another carrier
2. One who gets organism from another patient
3. One who sheds organism without suffering from overt disease
4. One who has recovered from the disease and continues shed the pathogen from his body

Answer. (1) (One who gets organism from another carrier)

Question 20. What is the dose of diphtheria antitoxin for severe cases?

1. 10,000–20,000 units
2. 20,000–40,000 units
3. 40,000–60,000 units
4. 80,000–1,00,000 units

Answer. (4) (80,000–1,00,000 units)

• For mild, early pharyngeal cases: 20,000–40,000 units
• For moderately severe cases: 40,000–60,000 units
• For severe, extensive or late cases (>3 days): 80,000–1,00,000 units

Question 21. Test used for diagnosis of leptospirosis is:

1. Microscopic agglutination test
2. Standard agglutination test
3. Cold agglutination
4. Slide agglutination test

Answer. (1) (Microscopic agglutination test)

• Microscopic agglutination test (MAT) is done for leptospirosis.
• Standard agglutination test is done for Acute brucellosis
• Cold agglutination test is done for primary atypical pneumonia
• Slide agglutination test performed to confirm the identification and serotyping of bacterial colonies grown in culture for Salmonella, Shigella and Vibrio.

Question 22. Which of the following disease has bird-arthropod- human transmission?

1. Japanese encephalitis
2. Plague
3. Paragonimiasis
4. Malaria

Answer. (1) (Japanese encephalitis)

JE virus has two transmission cycles:

1. Pigs → Culex → Pigs.
2. Ardeid birds → Culex → Ardeid birds.

JE virus is transmitted by bite of Culex mosquito (C. tritaeniorhynchus in worldwide;including India and C. vishnui is the next common vector found in India).
Other options: Plague, Paragonimiasis and malaria are arthropod borne diseases; but bird is not involved in disease transmission.