PGI Microbiology And Immunology Solved Model Question Paper MAY 2023

PGI Microbiology And Immunology Model Question Paper MAY 2023

Question.1. Antigen activity on bacterial surface occurs due to:

1. Capsular polysaccharide
2. Pilli
3. Flagella
4. Nuclear membrane
5. Cell wall

Answer. (1, 2, 3, 5) (Capsule, Pili, Flagella, Cellwall)

Read And Learn More: Micro Biology And Immunology Model Question Papers With Answers

Bacteria being prokaryotic, do not possess nuclear membrane.

Capsule, pili, flagella and cell wall—all these are antigenic in nature, present on bacterial surface.

Question.2. Acid fast organism (s) is/are:

1. Atypical mycobacteria
2. Rickettsia
3. Cryptosporidium parvum
4. Nocardia
5. Chlamydia

Answer. (1, 3, 4) (Atypical mycobacteria, Cryptosporidium parvum, Nocardia)

Mycobacteria (all including atypical), Cryptosporidium and Nocardia are acid-fast.

Question.3. Protein synthesis is inhibited by the toxin(s) of:

1. Pertussis
2. Cholera
3. Pseudomonas
4. Diphtheria
5. Shiga toxin

Answer. (3, 4, 5) (Pseudomonas, Diphtheria, Shiga toxin)

• Toxins that inhibit protein synthesis—diphtheria toxin, Pseudomonas exotoxin A, shiga toxin, verocytotoxin (E.coli)
• Toxin that increases cAMP—heat labile toxin (E.coli), Cholera toxin, Pertussis toxin
• Toxins that increases cGMP—heat stable toxin (E.coli)
• Neurotoxins- botulinum toxin, tetanus toxin

Question.4. MHC II is/are presented by:

1. Macrophage
2. Dendritic cells
3. B Lymphocytes
4. Epithelial cell
5. Platelets

Answer. (1, 2, 3) (Macrophage, Dendritic cells, B cells)

MHC I is present on all nucleated cells (except RBCs)

MHC II is present on all antigen presenting cells (APCs) such as macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells

Question.5. True statement regarding NK cells are all except:

1. Form part of innate immunity
2. CD 16 positive
3. CD 56 positive
4. No role in cell mediated immunity
5. Play an important role in destruction of viral infected host cells

Answer. (4) (No role in CMI)

• NK cells are a very important mediator of cell mediated immunity (CMI), plays an important role in destruction of viral infected host cells, tumour cells and other intracellular organisms.
• NK cells are component of innate immunity, possesses surface markers such as CD 16 and CD 56

Question.6. Vaccines not contraindicated in pregnancy:

1. Measles
2. Varicella
3. Mumps
4. Rabies
5. Hepatitis B

Answer. (4, 5) (rabies, Hepatitis B)

• In general, live vaccines such as measles, mumps, varicella are contraindicated in pregnancy
• Rabies vaccine is inactivated vaccine; hepatitis B vaccine is subunit vaccine; both can be given safely in pregnancy.

Question.7. Bacteriostatic drug(s) among ATT drugs used in initiation phase:

1. INH
2. Pyrazinamide
3. Streptomycin
4. Rifampicin
5. Ethambutol

Answer. (5) (Ethambutol)

Among the five anti-tubercular drugs given in initiation phase (HRZES); ethambutol is the only bacteriostatic agent. Other four agents (INH, rifampicin, pyrazinamide,streptomycin) are bactericidal.

Question.8. Anti-Methicillin-Resistance Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) drugs are:

1. Linezolid
2. Vancomycin
3. Daptomycin
4. Cefepime
5. Piperacillin-tazobactam

 

Answer. (1, 2, 3) (Linezolid, Vancomycin, Daptomycin)

• MRSA is resistant to all beta-lactams except fifth generation cephalosporins (ceftaroline and ceftobiprole)
• Vancomycin is DOC for MRSA; linezolid and daptomycin can be given as alternate.

Question.9. Bacillary Angiomatosis occur due to:

1. Mycoplasma
2. Gardnerella
3. Bartonella bacilliformis
4. Hemophilus influenzae
5. No relation with any above mentioned organism

Answer. (5) (No relation with any above mentioned organism)

Bacillary angiomatosis caused by both Bartonella henselae and B. quintana; but not B.bacilliformis

Bacillary angiomatosis (epithelioid angiomatosis) is an angioproliferative disorder,characterized by neovascular lesions involving skin and other organs

• It is associated with HIV and other severely immunocompromised conditions
• It is caused by both B. henselae and B. quintana
• Skin lesions are caused by both species. Hepatosplenic lesions are caused by B.henselae; whereas subcutaneous and lytic bone lesions are caused by B. quintana.

Question.10. All are true statement regarding pertussis except:

1. Secondary attack rate averages 90% in unimmunized contacts
2. Incubation period is around 10 days
3. Erythromycin is drug of choice
4. Can affect older children and adolescence
5. Main source of infection is chronic carriers

Answer. (5) (Main source is chronic carriers)

• Secondary attack rate of pertussis is very high; >90% in unimmunized contacts
• Incubation period of pertussis is around 7-10 days.
• Macrolides are the drugs of choice for pertussis (azithromycin for 5 days or erythromycin for 7–14 days)
• Pertussis s predominantly a disease of preschool children below 5 years. Pertussis has shifted from infants to older children and adolescence in countries with high vaccination coverage. This indicates that pertussis immunizations or natural infection do not provide lifelong immunity
• Early cases (catarrhal stage) are the main source of infection of pertussis. Previously, it was believed that there is no carrier state. However, recent molecular studies proved that a transient carrier state in nasopharynx occurs among children following the disease, which may contribute to the spread of the infection. However, there is no evidence of a long-term carrier state.

Question.11. Feature of acute rheumatic fever includes:

1. Carey coombs murmur
2. Pancarditis
3. Always cause residual joint disease
4. Chorea
5. Previous h/o of streptococcal infection

Answer. (1, 2, 4, 5) (Carey coombs murmur, Pancarditis, Chorea, Previous h/o of streptococcal infection)

• Acute rheumatic fever occurs in people previously infected with streptococcal sore throat. It is diagnosed by modified Jones criteria. The major manifestations are: Subcutaneous nodules, pancarditis, arthritis (migrating polyarthritis), chorea (CNS manifestation) and erythema marginatum (skin lesion)
• The Carey Coombs murmur (mid-diastolic apical murmur) is a clinical sign of ARF which occurs in patients with mitral valvulitis
  Residual cardiac disease is common in ARF, not residual joint disease.

Question.12. All are true statement regarding leprosy except:

• Paucibacillary leprosy means person having 1–5 skin lesions &/or only one nerve involvement
• Paucibacillary leprosy should receive MDT for six months
• If not treated can leads to permanent deformities
• Immunoprophylaxis has no role in leprosy

Answer. (4) (Immunoprophylaxis has no role in leprosy) is, Treatment and Prevention of Leprosy by WHO,2018.

• Paucibacillary leprosy—1–5 skin lesions, no or only 1 nerve involvement, skin smear negative at all sites and includes leprosy types TT, BT and Intermediate
• Multi-bacillary leprosy—≥6 skin lesions, >1 nerve involvement, skin smear positive at any site and includes leprosy types LL, BL and BB
• WHO 2018 Guidelines for the diagnosis, treatment and prevention of leprosy recommends the 3-drug regimen with rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine for all leprosy patients, with a duration of treatment of 6 months for PB leprosy and of 12 months for MB leprosy.
• However, as per National Leprosy Eradication Programme 2019 guideline, 2drug regimen (rifampicin + dapsone) is still recommended for paucibacillary leprosy.
• About 25% of untreated cases develop deformities in due course of time which may arise due to—(1) nerve injury leading to muscle weakness or paralysis, or (2) disease process (facial deformities or loss of eyebrow), or (3) infection or injury (ulcers).
• Immunoprophylaxis in leprosy—A killed leprosy vaccine has been recently developed in India in 2018, using Mycobacterium indicus pranii (MIP).

Question.13. Cutaneous T.B include(s):

1. Lupus vulgaris
2. Scrofuloderma
3. Lichen planus
4. Lupus erythematosus
5. Lupus pernio

Answer. (1, 2) (Lupus vulgaris, Scrofuloderma)

Lupus vulgaris and Scrofuloderma are cutaneous manifestations of tuberculosis.

Question.14. True about Ganciclovir:

1. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
2. Used in cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
3. Used in EBV infection
4. Active against Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus

Answer. (1, 2, 3, 4)

Ganciclovir, valganciclovir act by inhibiting Viral DNA polymerase. It is indicated in CMV and EBV, HSV and Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (HHV 8).

Question.15. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by:

1. HBsAg
2. IgM anti-HBc Ab
3. HBeAg
4. IgG anti-HBc Ab
5. Core antigen

Answer. (1, 2, 3) (HBsAg, IgM anti-HBc Ab, HBeAg)

• Markers raised in acute hepatitis B infection include HBsAg, HBeAg and anti-HBc IgM
• HBc Ag (core antigen) never appears in blood
• IgG anti-HBc Ab is raised in chronic, carrier and past HBV infection

Question.16. True about HPV vaccination:

1. Given in woman of age group 25-40 years
2. Primary immunization consists of 2 dose
3. Efficacy > 70% for cervical cancer
4. Two types of vaccine are available in the market
5. Protect against HPV 16 & 18

Answer. (2, 3, 4, 5) (Primary immunization consists of 2 dose, Efficacy > 70% for cervical cancer, Two types of vaccine are available in the market, Protect against HPV 16 &

1. Two types of HPV vaccines are available; cervarix (bivalent) and gardasil (nine valent).
   Both the vaccines are highly efficacious in preventing infection with virus types 16 and 18, which are together responsible for approximately 70% of cervical cancer cases globally.
2. Gardasil is given IM; either as 2 doses (6 months gap), between 9–14 yrs or 3 doses (0, 2 and 6 months) between 14–26 yrs age

Question.17. A patient is suffering from HIV & TB. Which of the following statement is correct regarding management of the patient?

• ATT drugs should be given before ART drug
• ART drugs should be given before ATT drugs
• Efavirenz dose should be reduced
• Adverse drug effects of ATT may be more pronounced

Answer. (1, 4) (ATT drugs given before ART drug, Adverse drug effect of ATT is more)

• According to the revised NACO guideline 2017, ART has to be started in all patients irrespective of CD4 count, clinical stage, age, population or associated opportunistic infections (OIs). However, OIs should be adequately treated with appropriate antimicrobial agents before starting ART.
• There is an Increased risk of adverse reactions to anti-TB drugs in HIV positive patients

Question.18. Wood’s lamp examination is used in diagnosis of:

1. Erythrasma
2. Lichen planus
3. Psoriasis
4. P. versicolor
5. T. capitis

Answer. (1, 4, 5) (Erythrasma, P. versicolor, T. capitis)

Wood’s lamp examination is used in diagnosis of eythrasma, Tinea (dermatophyte infection) and Pityriasis versicolor.

Question.19. Larvae which travel through lung during its life cycle:

1. Strongyloides stercoralis
2. Ascaris lumbricoides
3. Necator Americanus
4. Trichuris trichiura
5. Wuchereria bancrofti microfilaria

Answer. (1, 2, 3,5) (Strongyloides stercoralis, Ascaris lumbricoides, Necator americanus,Wuchereria bancrofti microfilaria)

• Larvae which travel through lung during its life cycle are Strongyloides, Ascaris, hook worm (Necator and Acylostoma) and microfilarae of lymphatic filarial worms (e.g. Wuchereria, Brugia)
• Microfilariae of lymphatic filarial worms are rapidly cleared from the blood stream and filtered, lodged and destroyed in the lungs initiating an allergic response known as Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia…..

Question.20. Arthropod borne disease is/are:

1. Brucellosis
   Lyme’s disease
   Borrelia recurrentis
   Malaria
   Plague

Answer. (2, 3, 4, 5) (Lyme’s disease, Borrelia recurrentis, Malaria, Plague)

• Arthropod involved in transmission: Lyme’s disease (tick), Borrelia recurrentis (louse),malaria (Anopheles mosquito), and Plague (rat flea)
• Brucellosis is zoonotic, not arthropod-borne.

Question.21. Tick is vector for:

1. Crimean Congo fever
2. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
3. Epidemic typhus
4. Endemic typhus
5. Scrub typhus

Answer. (1, 2) (Crimean Congo fever, Rocky Mountain spotted fever)

Athropod involved in transmission: Crimean Congo fever (tick), Rocky Mountain spotted fever (tick), Epidemic typhus (louse), endemic typhus (flea) and scrub typhus (mite).

Question.22. Disease(s) caused by cat licking or bite is/are:

1. Bartonella hensellae
2. Bartonella bacilliformis
3. Pasteurella multocida
4. Bartonella vinsoni
5. Yersinia pestis

Answer. (1, 2, 5) (Bartonella hensellae, Pasteurella multocida, Yersinia pestis)

Diseases transmitted from cat/Cats act as source of infection:

• Mainly, Cat scratch disease (Bartonella hansellae), Pasteurella multocida (cats and dogs),Toxoplasma
• Others: Campylobacter, Rabies, SARS-CoV, Hepatitis E virus, Blastomyces, Sporothrix,Malassezia, Ascaris and Dirofilaria, Yersinia pestis

Question.23. Isolation is/are beneficial in:

1. Diphtheria
2. Measles
3. Typhoid
4. TB
5. Cholera

Answer. (a, b, d, e) (Diphtheria, Measles, TB, Cholera)

• There are three types of isolation precautions: contact, droplet and airborne
• The type of isolation precaution needed for the diseases in the question: Diphtheria (droplet precaution), measles (airborne precaution), TB (airborne precaution) and cholera (contact precaution)
• In Typhoid, standard precaution is sufficient. Person-to-person transmission rare/absent.

Question.24. Disease(s) infectious before onset of symptoms:

1. Hepatitis B
2. Measles
3. Mumps
4. Cholera

Answer. (1, 2, 3) (Hepatitis B, Measles, Mumps)

• Hepatitis B is detected in blood and is considered to be infectious within 30 to 60 days after infection. Whereas, the symptoms will appear only after the incubation period of 30 to 180 days.
• Measles is infectious -4 to +5 days of onset of rashes
• Mumps is infectious from -1 to +1 week of onset of parotitis
• Cholera is infectious after the patent becomes symptomatic, and the patient passes loose stool containing the causative agent

Question.25. Painful genital ulcer is/are seen in:

1. Chancroid
2. Lymphogranuloma venereum
3. Primary syphilis
4. Herpes
5. Granuloma inguinale

Answer. (1, 4) (Chancroid, Herpes)

Genital ulcers are painful in herpes, and chancroid, painless in primary syphilis, LGV and donovanosis (granuloma inguinale).