Flagellates Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 1. Identify the organism in the given picture:

1. Giardia intestinalis
2. Cryptosporidium hominins
3. Entamoeba dispar
4. Balantidium coli

Answer. (1) (Giardia intestinalis)

The image depicts an iodine wet mount demonstrating cysts of Giardia intestinalis.

Read And Learn More: Micro Biology And Immunology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Identify the parasite:

1. Guardia
2. E. coli
3. E. histolytica
4. Balantidium coli

Answer. (1) (Guardia)

Question 3. A 3-year-child with malnutrition, chronic diarrhea, and malabsorption. Stool examination shows the parasite as given in the picture:

1. Ascaris
2. Giardia lamblia trophozoite
3. Nectar Americans
4. Entamoeba histolytica

Answer. (2) (Giardia lamblia trophozoite)

Clue for diagnosis:

Child with malnutrition, chronic diarrhea, and malabsorption. Stool examination shows tear drop-shaped trophozoites with two sucking disks and two nuclei and eight flagella.

Question 4. Giardia, true is:

1. Mostly invade into the small intestine
2. Present with bloody diarrhea
3. Mostly in hyperglobulinemia patient
4. Nitroimidazole is effective
5. Passed in stool but non-infectious

Answer. (4) (Nitro imidazole is effective)

• Metronidazole, imidazole, nitazoxanide and furazolidone are the drugs effective in giardiasis.
• Giardiasis is associated with hypogammaglobulinemia, seen in Common variable immunodeficiency syndrome.
• Giardia never invades GI mucosa.
• Tetra nucleated cysts passed in stool are infectious.
• Trophozoites passed in stool are non-infectious as they disintegrate.

Question 5. Which of the following is true with Giardia lamblia?

1. Malabsorption, commonly seen
2. Trophozoite form is binucleate
3. Diarrhea is seen
4. Jejunal wash fluid is diagnostic

Answer. (2, 3) (Trophozoite form is binucleate and Diarrhea is seen)

• Option a: Incorrect: Disease manifestations of Giardiasis range from asymptomatic carriage (most common form) to fulminant diarrhea and malabsorption (rarely seen).
• Option b: Correct: Trophozoite of Giardia has 2 axostyles, 2 nuclei, and 4 pairs of flagella.
• Option c: Correct: Common symptoms—diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, belching, flatus and vomiting.
• Option d: Incorrect: For diagnosis of Giardiasis—Duodenal aspirate/wash fluid is diagnostic and not jejunal.

Question 6. Which of the following infestations leads to malabsorption?

1. Giardia lamblia
2. Ascaris Lumbricidae
3. Necater americana
4. Ancylostoma duodenale

Answer. (1) (Giardia lamblia)

Question 7. An anxious mother brought her 4-year-old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination, which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism:

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Giardia lamblia
3. Cryptosporidium sp
4. E. coli

Answer. (2) (Giardia lamblia).

• The clues provided in the given history:
• Affected patient: child–4 years
• History of Diarrhea: loose bulky stools for the past 20 days and associated with pain in the abdomen
• Suggests that probably the child is suffering from Giardiasis.

Question 8. Romana sign is seen in:

1. Trypanosomiasis
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. Piroplasmosis
4. Leishmaniasis

Answer. (1) (Trypanosomiasis)

• Romana sign is a periorbital edema seen in patients with Chagas disease (T. cruzi).

Question 9. All are true about Chagas’ disease except:

1. Romana’s sign is a diagnostic feature of acute Chagas’ disease
2. Tsetse fly is the vector (Glossing palpalis)
3. Cultured in N medium
4. Has amastigote and trypomastigote forms

Answer. (2) (Tsetse fly is a vector)

• Reduviid bug is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi (the causative agent of Chagas disease)
• Romana’s sign (periorbital edema) is a diagnostic feature of acute Chagas disease.
• Trypanosoma cruzi can be cultured in N medium.
• Trypanosoma cruzi has both amastigote (seen only in insect vectors) and trypomastigote forms (seen in both humans and insect vectors).

Question 10. Reduviid bug is a vector for the transmission of:

1. Relapsing fever
2. Lyme’s disease
3. Scrub typhus
4. Chagas disease

Answer. (4) (Chagas disease).

• Reduvid bug/triatomid bug is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi (agent of Chagas’disease)

Question 11. Strawberry cervix is seen in:

1. Gardnerella vaginalis
2. Trichomonas vaginalis
3. Mycoplasma hominins
4. Nasser gonorrhea

Answer. (2) (Trichomonas vaginalis)

• The strawberry appearance of the vaginal mucosa is the characteristic feature of Trichomonas vaginalis infection.
• Also k/a Colpitis macular is
• Seen in 2% of cases.

Question 12. NNN Media used for isolation of:

1. Leishmania donovani
2. Giardia
3. E. histolytica
4. Trichomonas vaginalis
5. Trypanosoma cruzi

Answer. (1, 5) (Leishmania donovani, Trypanosoma cruzi).

• New Media is used for the culture of Leishmania and Trypanosoma sp

Question 13. Winter bottom sign is seen in:

1. African trypanosomiasis
2. Toxocariasis
3. Leishmaniasis
4. Toxoplasmosis

Answer. (1) (African…).

• Winter bottom sign (posterior cervical lymphadenopathy) seen in West African trypanosomiasis (T. brucei ambiance).

Question 14. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by:

1. Tsetse fly
2. Housefly
3. Sandfly
4. Simulink fly

Answer. (1) (Tsetse fly).

• Trypanosoma brucei, the causative agent of Sleeping sickness, is transmitted by tsetse fly
• Trypanosoma brucei gambiense (West Africa): Bite of Glossing (tsetse fly)
• Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense (Eastern and Central Africa): Bite of Glossina (tsetse fly)

Question 15. A 50-year-old male has a fever for the past 1 week, with abdominal distention and loss of appetite. It is not responding to antibiotics and antimalarials. The widal test is negative, but the RK 39 dipstick test is positive. Which of the following drugs can be used in the above patient?

1. Bed aquiline
2. Linezolid
3. Fluconazole
4. Liposomal Amphotericin B

Answer. (4) (Liposomal Amphotericin B)

RK39 dipstick test is positive….is suggestive of Kalazar. DOC for kalazar is Liposomal Amphotericin B.

Question 16. Prevalence of kala-azar is not seen in

1. UP
2. Bihar
3. West Bengal
4. Assam

Answer. (4) (Assam)

India is one of the worst affected countries. Bihar is affected the most (>70% of cases) followed by Jharkhand, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 17. Orally effective drug approved for Leishmaniasis:

1. Miltefosine
2. Paromomycin
3. Pentamidine
4. Suramin

Answer. (1) (Miltefosine)

• Miltefosine is the first oral compound approved for the treatment of leishmaniasis.
• In VL: Pentavalent antimonials are the DOC except Bihar (Amphotericin B is DOC)
• In CL: Pentavalent antimonials are the DOC except for L.guyanensis (gentamicins is DOC) and L.ethiopia (paromomycin is DOC)

Question 18. Kala azar is endemic in all these places except:

1. Bihar
2. Assam
3. UP
4. West Bengal

Answer. (2) (Assam).

India is the worst affected country for visceral leishmaniasis. Bihar is affected the most, followed by Jharkhand, West Bengal and UP.

Question 19. Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused by:

1. Leishmania donovani
2. Leishmania braziliensis
3. Leishmania mexicana
4. Leishmania tropica

Answer. (2) (Leishmania braziliensis)

Question 20. Espundia is a condition seen in: 

1. Endemic syphilis
2. Malaria
3. Lympho Granuloma Venereal
4. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

Answer. (4) (Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis)

• Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis caused by L. brasiliensis is presented as Espundia (infects mucous membrane of the nose, oral cavity, pharynx or larynx)

Question 21. The insect given in the image below is the vector of which of the following diseases?

1. JE
2. Trypanosomiasis
3. KFD
4. Visceral leishmaniasis

Answer. (4) (Visceral Leishmaniasis)

This photograph belongs to Sand fly, and it is the vector of Leishmaniasis

Identification features of Sand fly:

• The head contains a pair of long, slender, and hairy antennae, pal pi, and a proboscis
• Thorax contains a pair of wings and three pairs of legs
• The abdomen has ten segments. The body and wings are covered by dense hair
• Though winged, they only hop about and do not fly, have longer legs
• They bite during the night and only females bite; the males live on fruit juices.

Diseases transmitted by sand fly:

• Visceral leishmaniasis
• Sand-fly fever (Papayas fever/3 days fever)
• Oriental sore
• Oriya fever (Carrion’s disease).

Question 22. Vector for Kala-azar:

1. Flea
2. Tsetse fly
3. Sand fly
4. Tick

Answer. (3) (Sand fly)

• Sandflies of genera Phlebotomus acts as intermediate host for Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar).
• Humans and other vertebrates act as definitive hosts.

Question 23. Drugs not used in visceral leishmaniasis:

1. Sitamoqine
2. Puromycin
3. Miltefosine
4. Hydroxychloroquine

Answer. (4) (Hydroxychloroquine)

• Treatment regimen for Leishmaniasis:
• Pentavalent antimonial – DOC in most endemic regions of the world, except in Bihar
• Sodium stibogluconate
• Melamine antimoniate
• Amphoteric in B: DOC in Bihar
• Paromomycin
• Miltefosine
• Option d: Sitamaquine (WR6026) is an 8-aminoquinoline in development for the oral treatment of visceral leishmaniasis (VL).

Question 24. A 20-year-old female from Africa has hepatosplenomegaly, pallor, and generalized lymphadenopathy. Lab test useful for diagnosis is /are:

1. ESR
2. Electrophoresis
3. Parasite detection in aspirate
4. ELISA
5. Routine hemogram

Answer. (1, 3, 5) (ESR, Parasite detection in aspirate, and Routine hemogram)

• The history provided suggests probably patient is probably suffering from Kala-azar (visceral Leishmaniasis)
• ‘The classical features of VL splenomegaly and hepatomegaly accompanied by anemia and weight loss.
• Darkening of the skin of the face, hands, feet, and abdomen is common (kala-azar—black sickness)
• Atypical features such as generalized lymphadenopathy may also occur in African leishmaniasis’.